bit of editing wanted : are these equivalent?

[Brendan McKay]

* benoit <abcloitre at wanadoo.fr> [031207 08:56]:
> 
> Yes that's an interesting equivalence. Let (A(n)) having g.f. 
> x/(1+cosh(x)) and (B(n))  having g.f. 2/(1+exp(x))
> 
> then A(n)+n*B(n)=0

x times the derivative of 2/(1+exp(x)) is the negative of x/(1+cosh(x)),
that's all.

B.