a question from a correspodent

Christian Boyer cboyer at club-internet.fr
Fri Oct 26 14:14:42 CEST 2007


> Eric says:
> i'm trying to understand  F(p) = Phi(p) - 1 = p - 2 (from Mr Boyer)

It is well-known that Phi(p) = p - 1
Look for example at
http://mathworld.wolfram.com/TotientFunction.html

Christian.








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