[seqfan] Re: Is A037289 multiplicative
franktaw at netscape.net
franktaw at netscape.net
Tue Jul 10 14:58:29 CEST 2012
That isn't true in general; it is equivalent to the assertion that
there is only one Sylow p-subgroup.
Maybe it is true for commutative rings, however. Do you have a
reference?
Franklin T. Adams-Watters
-----Original Message-----
From: israel <israel at math.ubc.ca>
To: Sequence Fanatics Discussion list <seqfan at list.seqfan.eu>
Sent: Tue, Jul 10, 2012 2:35 am
Subject: [seqfan] Re: Is A037289 multiplicative
Doesn't the Sylow p-subgroup consist of all elements x such that p^m x
= 0,
where p^m is the largest power of p in n? Those elements constitute an
ideal of R, since p^m (xy) = (p^m x) y = 0, and therefore in particular
a
subring.
Robert Israel
University of British Columbia
On Jul 9 2012, franktaw at netscape.net wrote:
>Looking at this sequence, there is a conjecture that the sequence is
>multiplicative. I can almost prove that it is.
>
>I need a lemma that, if R is a commutative ring of order n, and prime
p
>divides n, then there is a Sylow p-subgroup of the additive group of R
>that is in fact a subring if R. It is then easy to see that R must be
>the direct product of these subrings, and the result follows.
>
>(This is an equivalent assertion, by the way; if there is a
commutative
>ring with no such "Sylow p-subring", the sequence is not
multiplicative
>for that n.)
>
>Does anybody know of such a result? Or can you find a proof?
>
>Franklin T. Adams-Watters
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