[seqfan] p+2n =q equivalent to sigma(x+2n)=sigma(x)+2n, yes or no

[Richard J. Mathar]

There is a statement in http://oeis.org/A054906 which basically
states that this is the same as http://oeis.org/A020483 .
Neil wondered whether this is conjecture or a theorem (as the author
of A054906 did not shed any light on the quality of his statement).
Is there any proof? I've started something brainstorming
on that question in http://www.mpia-hd.mpg.de/~mathar/public/mathar20150429.pdf
hoping this is an appetizer to some true number theorist.. :-)

RJM