[seqfan] Re: Number theory question
Vladimir Shevelev
shevelev at bgu.ac.il
Wed May 31 15:53:03 CEST 2017
Hi David,
If a<=b, then one can take
k=!b such that the question is solved
in affirmative.
Best regards,
Vladimir
________________________________________
From: SeqFan [seqfan-bounces at list.seqfan.eu] on behalf of David Wilson [davidwwilson at comcast.net]
Sent: 31 May 2017 05:12
To: 'math-fun'; 'Sequence Fanatics Discussion list'
Subject: [seqfan] Number theory question
Let !n = 0! + 1! + ... + n! = A003422(n)
For integer k, is it true that
!a == k (mod a)
and
!b == k (mod b)
together imply
!c == k (mod c)
where
c = lcm(a, b)
?
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