[seqfan] Re: Number theory question

[Vladimir Shevelev]

Hi David,

If a<=b, then one can take
k=!b such that the question is solved 
in affirmative.

Best regards,
Vladimir 
________________________________________
From: SeqFan [seqfan-bounces at list.seqfan.eu] on behalf of David Wilson [davidwwilson at comcast.net]
Sent: 31 May 2017 05:12
To: 'math-fun'; 'Sequence Fanatics Discussion list'
Subject: [seqfan] Number theory question

Let !n = 0! + 1! + ... + n! = A003422(n)

For integer k, is it true that

        !a == k (mod a)

and

        !b == k (mod b)

together imply

        !c == k (mod c)

where

        c = lcm(a, b)

?




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