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<DIV>Actually, the answer is yes. See <A href="http://mathworld.wolfram.com/BertrandsPostulate.html">http://mathworld.wolfram.com/BertrandsPostulate.html</A>; the paragraph starting "an extension of this result". Not exactly the theorem requested, but it follows easily.</DIV>
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<DIV>Franklin T. Adams-Watters<BR>16 W. Michigan Ave.<BR>Palatine, IL 60067<BR>847-776-7645</DIV>
<DIV> </DIV> <BR>-----Original Message-----<BR>From: franktaw@netscape.net<BR><BR>
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<DIV>The answer is almost certainly yes. ...</DIV>
<DIV> <BR>-----Original Message-----<BR>From: Leroy Quet <A href="mailto:qq-quet@mindspring.com">qq-quet@mindspring.com</A><BR><TT><FONT face=Verdana size=2></FONT></TT></DIV>
<DIV><TT><FONT face=Verdana size=2>...</FONT><BR>Is there always only one composite between each pair of adjacent primes, <BR>p(n) and p(n+1), which is divisible by the highest prime dividing any <BR>composite between p(n) and p(n+1)?<BR>...</TT></DIV></DIV></DIV></DIV></DIV></DIV>
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