[seqfan] Re: Fibonacci sequences sharing no terms
Jack Brennen
jfb at brennen.net
Tue Sep 24 17:27:04 CEST 2013
No, they won't ever share any terms (assuming you don't "work backwards"
from 4,6 to get 2).
Note that the second sequence:
4,6,10,16,26,42,68,110,...
is simply equal to the sum of these two sequences:
3,5,8,13,21,34,55,89,...
1,1,2, 3, 5, 8,13,21,...
Think about that. :)
On 9/24/2013 8:14 AM, Eric Angelini wrote:
> Hello Seqfans,
> please forgive me if this question is naïve.
> Consider Fib(1,2) = 1,2,3,5,8,13,21,34,55,89,144,233,377,610,987,1597,2584,4181,...
> Now will Fib(4,6) = 4,6,10,16,26,42,68,110,178,288,466,... share at some point
> one term (or more) with Fib(1,2)?
> If yes or no, do we know why? Are there constraints on 'a' and 'b' leading to
> a Fib(a,b) which will never share any term with Fib(1,2)?
> Many thanks,
> É.
> [I've never subscribed to Fibonacci Quarterly...]
>
>
>
> _______________________________________________
>
> Seqfan Mailing list - http://list.seqfan.eu/
>
>
>
More information about the SeqFan
mailing list